And you know this to be true for sure on what basis? Does the Bible say “no exceptions, not even Jesus’ Mother”?
I don’t think so.
I think you’ve just added your own man-made stuff to the Bible, 2000 years after the fact.
We say that since the Bible was authorized to be written down by those Jesus chose to be the authoritative interpreters of his life and message (he wrote nothing down himself), so too He authorized them and their successors to decide whether “all have sinned” has no exceptions, one exception, thirteen and three-quarters exceptions, or thirty million exceptions. These authorized interpreters interpreted other passages (e.g., “full of grace”) as meaning that one exception was granted to the “all.”
So it’s you said/they said. Exactly when did Jesus authorize you to interpret his Holy Word authoritatively and to tell his authorized interpreters they are wrong?
Yesterday? Or three days ago? Or maybe a few years ago?
“And you know this to be true for sure on what basis? Does the Bible say no exceptions, not even Jesus Mother?”
No, it just says all have sinned and come short of the glory of God. It lists no exceptions. So I think it means that all have sinned and come short of the glory of God.
“Exactly when did Jesus authorize you to interpret his Holy Word authoritatively and to tell his authorized interpreters they are wrong?”
He has not named me or anyone else. He had his Word written down for us to read. He commends the Bereans for searching the Scriptures to see if certain claims are so.
“All have sinned and come short of the glory of God,” is not a hard sentence to understand and really doesn’t require some special authorized interpreter.
It doesn’t say “some” have sinned or “most” have sinned or “all but Mary” have sinned, it says “all,” which is an easily understandable concept.
Why make stuff up???