Yes, but it is explained by traducianism to have passed through the man during conception.
When I say “fully man” it includes Adam’s sinful nature.
Since Adam was not created with the sin nature, yet was fully man, having a sinful nature is not essential to being a human. Therefore, having the sin nature is an anamoly to what it means to be human. At the same time, being human without the sinful nature did not mean Adam could not be tempted and have to make a choice to obey or not ... as his disposition toward God was not "locked in" until he fell. His fall locked in our disposition toward God but it did not change what it means to be human.
Keep in mind that Jesus had to be fully man
Agree, and He was fully human ... but as I have said, possession of the sin nature is not germane to being human; it is an analomy.
Jesus really wasn’t a sinful man like we are and didn’t have the same temptations.
He wasnt a sinful man ... He was a man though and He was clearly tempted in all ways as we are yet did not sin; in contrast to Adam who did not have the sin nature but choose to sin thereby gaining it.
I believe he had to have had the same nature but resisted them.
This is where I believe you should explore very carefully. It would be a long and grinding task ... but what is your main line of reasoning to support this? Is it Biblical? Do you have a particular passage in mind or group of them? Or is this arrived at through theological considerations? If so, what is the main area of theology you are applying?
They are difficult questions but worth your time.
I’m probably not putting my thought process down well enough in words. Before Adam sinned he obviously had a free will to disobey God. Jesus would have had that same free will in His fully man. He was also fully God so that part of His being could not sin although there is no human way to understand how that relates. My reasoning stems in part from the following verse.
For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin (Heb. 4:15 NASB).
He was tempted “in all things as we are”. That would mean, at least to me, that He had the same temptations as we do.
I realize, and have studied, all the theological discussions on this matter and differ on this point. I don’t think anyone will really know what the answer is in this life but when the verse states “in all things as we are” it tells me that Jesus had to resist those temptations. He was surely “without sin” in that He did not sin but I don’t believe anyone in this lifetime will ever know for sure how that works.
I will concede that either understanding works as far as our feeble minds are concerned. We will not totally understand until we are with Him on that glorious day. I will say that I don’t think it matters that we do not fully understand as it regards our salvation.