490 To become the mother of the Savior, Mary "was enriched by God with gifts appropriate to such a role."132 The angel Gabriel at the moment of the annunciation salutes her as "full of grace".133 In fact, in order for Mary to be able to give the free assent of her faith to the announcement of her vocation, it was necessary that she be wholly borne by God's grace.
491 Through the centuries the Church has become ever more aware that Mary, "full of grace" through God,134 was redeemed from the moment of her conception. That is what the dogma of the Immaculate Conception confesses, as Pope Pius IX proclaimed in 1854:
492 The "splendor of an entirely unique holiness" by which Mary is "enriched from the first instant of her conception" comes wholly from Christ: she is "redeemed, in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son".136 The Father blessed Mary more than any other created person "in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places" and chose her "in Christ before the foundation of the world, to be holy and blameless before him in love".137
493 The Fathers of the Eastern tradition call the Mother of God "the All-Holy" (Panagia), and celebrate her as "free from any stain of sin, as though fashioned by the Holy Spirit and formed as a new creature".138 By the grace of God Mary remained free of every personal sin her whole life long.
Now please answer the question in your own words. One sentence or less would really do it.
Did Mary, who gave birth to the Savior in Bethlehem, require that Savior to shed His Blood for HER sins?
You could answer with a “yes” or a “no.”
Perhaps you could refresh my memory . . .
how is it that the vast bulk . . . what 90% or so??? of the Marian stuff
was only formalized around 1930 or after.
!!!!TRADITION!!!! evidently took 1600 years or so to fossilize?
Was Mary’s mother sinless? How could a sinful womb carry a sinless child?