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First century Jews would have reconciled days and nights as they still do to this very day. A first century Jew began his day at sunset and ended his day at sunset. This has not changed, as evidenced b the fact the the Sabbath begins at Friday evening sundown, to this very day.

Yes, I am applying a hermeneutic approach by using an inductive method. This is a pr oven and appropriate method of study and examining what is being presented. This is not error and my observations have been within the context of the verses presented and the Jewish reckoning of days and nights that is still used to this very day and differs form our Gregorian reckoning, where days and nights are divided by Midnight on our clocks.

Kindly demonstrate exactly how three days and three nights can be gotten out of a pre-sunset Friday burial to a pre-sunrise Sunday resurrection.

Having re-read Luke 24 I find nothing contrary to my inductions. Even Luke says that when the women arrived a tthe tomb, early in the morning, He was laredy risen. So, please present the specific verses that substantiate your Friday crucifixion and specifically how it justifies the 3days/3nights. Jesus was quite specific in His prophecy, it would be expected that a Jew would understand and be able to see the specificity of fulfillment.

You have not made a clear case outside of general commentary and I am merely seeking for you present a more detailed explanation. because as it stands, you comment of what a first century Hebrew would know is not convincing ans is rather spurious.

First century Jews would have reconciled days and nights as they still do to this very day.

How modern Jews understand it is immaterial. How first century Jews understood it is what is important. The disciples declared to Jesus in Luke 24, "It is the third day", not "it is the fourth day" which is how you wish to read it. This harkens back to Jesus' words, "Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up." Not four days, not two days.

Your contention seems to be that the disciples in Luke 24 could not count according to the common Hebrew reckoning of time in that day.

Yes, I am applying a hermeneutic approach by using an inductive method.

I have not seen any evidence of that. Where else have you looked in the Bible to get your definition of the meaning of the phrase "three days and three nights"? It appears to me that you have applied some modern theory of counting time that involves a day zero. The ancient world did not operate that way. They understood the first day, the second day, the third day. Friday, Saturday, Sunday. Rather simple.