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To: NYer; fwdude; Quix; Salvation; Dr. Eckleburg; DarthVader; Iscool; wmfights; P-Marlowe; HarleyD
Mary's sinlessness is referred to as her Immaculate Conception (conceived without sin). From Sacred Scripture we have at least two passages of the Bible that present the implicit seed of the revealed truth of Mary's Immaculate Conception.

Thanks for taking the time to present your thoughts.

You note two verses of Scripture as the foundation for your belief that Mary is outside human condemnation following the fall, ie., immaculately conceived, Gen.3:15 and Luke 1:28. Are there any other verses that are more definitive? Also, how can you reconcile this sinless state with her death. Aren't the wages of sin death?

The early Church Fathers refer to Mary under such titles as "all holy," "all pure," "most innocent," "a miracle of grace," "purer than the angels," "altogether without sin," and these within the first three centuries of the Church.

How do you know they got it right?

86 posted on 10/09/2007 10:46:57 AM PDT by wmfights (LUKE 9:49-50 , MARK 9:38-41)
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To: wmfights
How do you know they got it right?

Obviously many of them didn't. They were dealing with heresies coming from all sides, and so some of them incorporated the female pagan rituals into these inflated descriptions of Mary.

Isis and Cybele became Mary.

"CULT OF THE VIRGIN MARY
PHYSCOLOGICAL ORIGINS"
by Michael Carroll

92 posted on 10/09/2007 11:18:19 AM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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