THE KJV was translated under strict orders not to contradict the anglican church. Further ascribing grammatic properties of English words to words translated into English from other languages is naive.
folks looking to insist on a literalist interpretation of scripture should learn the literal langauge used in writing it.
From an Orthodox website (http://www.lxx.org/): "We are taking the New King James Version as a starting point -- "boilerplate" you might say -- and changing it everywhere it is different from the Septuagint. The result will indeed be a Septuagint translation."
Are they also naive? I have read on other EO sites that the KJV is recommended for NT study. More naivety?