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To: Dr. Eckleburg; P-Marlowe; ScubieNuc; Forest Keeper; HarleyD; xzins; blue-duncan; Blogger; Quix
The truth is that the Council of Trent (1545-1564) placed the Bible on its list of prohibited books, and forbade any person to read the Bible without a license from a Roman Catholic bishop or inquisitor. The Council wrote: "That if any one shall dare to read or keep in his possession that book, without such a license, he shall not receive absolution till he has given it up to his ordinary."

Is it possible that the purpose was to ensure that the laity not read those "pesky" Protestant Bibles? To get a license it would have to be a Roman Bible.

What would have been the differences between the Roman Bible and a Protestant Bible?

353 posted on 01/25/2007 12:49:38 PM PST by wmfights (LUKE 9:49-50 , MARK 9:38-41)
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To: wmfights
Godly men had the audacity to translate the Bible into (gasp!) the language of the people!!!

(((shudder)))

What travesty will they think of next?!?

Or should I have said...

"Quis eo mos adveho tunc??"

391 posted on 01/25/2007 2:27:26 PM PST by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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