I'm a little confused. All along, I have been basically agreeing with you on what the primary meaning of "epiousios" seems to have been. I don't see how you could make reference to "as clear as you would like to indicate," when my precise point was that this unique word was unknown in classical or LXX Greek, was probably newly coined for the NT, and thus would seem to be anything but simple and clear.
Well, I think we've probably reached the end of the useful line on this one. You may be one of those rare Protestants who never sees deeper or secondary meanings in Scriptures -- I certainly wasn't saying what meanings you did or didn't see in that line, I was simply stating that I've not found that Protestants are any less likely to see secondary, spiritual, or allegorical meanings in Scriptural texts than are Catholics or Orthodox. As to daily communion, I think I was pretty clear -- the New Testament church in Jerusalem seems to have gathered daily to break bread, including, we would assume, having communion. There is no hard evidence for this, but it is the tradition we have. On the other hand, we Orthodox don't see a command for all Christians to commune daily anywhere in Scripture -- but we do still see it as an ideal, if we had the privilege of living in an ideal world.
I'll otherwise leave the discussion with your final comments. I will say, though, that while the mission statement may not be explicitly Reformed, nor may its current theology be adequately pure from a Reformed perspective these days, Daily Bread and RBC ministries were founded by M.R. De Haan in Grand Rapids, MI -- Dutch Reformed, in the U.S. capital of Dutch Reformedness. It is a staple of devotional life in the main branches of the Dutch Reformed tradition here in the U.S.
I must be misreading your statement. I've gone back and reread it but there must be a disconnect somewhere. Typing pithy little comments back and forth sometimes isn't the best type of forum for discussing some of these theological nuances. From the above statement, you're obvious coming from some other point of view than how I'm reading it, and the way I'm reading it and my response probably sounds like I have my "righteous Protestant indignation" up which isn't the case. We are obviously miscommunicating.
I think we're in agreement. It is very interesting why this unique word is used by our Lord. I can understand the Catholics and Orthodox wishing to point it out and the Protestants wishing to minimize it. Fact is, if it hasn't been figured out for 2,000 years by experts I doubt if we'll figure it out.