I am not talking about "knowing". I am talking about "till"...
"Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS
The Greek Septaugint uses the exact same word in Matthew 1:25 as in 2 Samuel 6:23
"Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child till (unto) the day of her death."
Are you going to propose to me that Michal had a child AFTER her death? As Kosta says, the Scripture does not necessarily discuss the FUTURE when using "til" or "unto". It is YOUR presumption that Mary had sex with Joseph. The Bible is silent on that. Thus, we rely on Apostolic Tradition to tell us that Mary remained a virgin. The Bible alone does not tell us either way.
Regards
The Bible speaks very loudly to the fact that Mary and Joseph had sex.
"Matthew 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS