[InterestedQuestioner]

The prophecy that a virgin would bear a child would not have been familiar to Mary unless she spoke Greek. The Hebrew Scriptures contained in Isaiah 7 state that a ha'almah will give birth to a child. Ha'almah means young woman. The word ha'almah is not restricted to mean virgin. In fact, the RSV translates Isaiah 7: 14 as:

"Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign. Behold, a young woman shall conceive and bear a son, and shall call his name Imman'u-el."

Matthew is quoting the Greek Septuagint, which translated ha'almah as "virgin" rather than as young woman. As far as I am aware, this was the Bible that the Apostles used when writing in Greek.

[monkfan]

Matthew is quoting the Greek Septuagint, which translated ha'almah as "virgin" rather than as young woman. As far as I am aware, this was the Bible that the Apostles used when writing in Greek.

That is my understanding as well. The LXX was what the average Jew was familiar with because that what the text being used in the synagogues. Did temple virgins go to synagogue? Your guess is as good as mine. However, if she knew any scripture at all, my money is on the Greek. I don't think the Hebrew texts were used outside of the Temple.