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To: jo kus; 1000 silverlings; HarleyD; qua; Forest Keeper; blue-duncan; AlbionGirl
But yet, you claim that Jesus only died for the elect...

I take Jesus at His word.

"I pray for them: I pray not for the world, but for them which thou hast given me; for they are thine." -- John 17:9

"But ye believe not, because ye are not of my sheep, as I said unto you.

My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me:

And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish, neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.

My Father, which gave them me, is greater than all; and no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand." -- John 10:26-29

"Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which he hath purchased with his own blood." -- Acts 20:28

Christ's death was sufficient for all, but efficacious only for the elect whom God has given Christ to redeem. Christ's blood was shed for those who have received faith, unless all the world is "the church." Is all the world "the church?"

PARTICULAR REDEMPTION

...John Owen points out in His classic work, The Death of Death, that only three positions are possible regarding the extent of the atonement: (a) Jesus died for the sins of all people, (b) Jesus died for all the sins of some people, (c) Jesus died for some sins of all people. Now, if position c is correct, then all are still in their sins. If position a is correct, then why are all not saved? If the answer is because of unbelief, we ask: Is not unbelief a sin for which Christ died to atone (Jn.17.9)? If Christ died for the sin of unbelief for all people, then why are people punished for the sin of unbelief? The only consistent position is b, for it satisfies both reason and experience..."

Christ's death did not make salvation possible; His death saves. Christ's death did not make reconciliation possible; His death reconciled. Christ's death and resurrection accomplished everything God intended -- the acquittal of the sheep by the Son who took upon Himself the guilt and thus the punishment of the sheep whom God had given Him.

Man-centered philosophies will always tell you that His work is incomplete and variable and in need of augmentation by other men and institutions.

But they are wrong. They just want the power to manipulate you. Same as it ever was.

You didn't answer my question earlier. Did Christ die for your sins, or not, jo kus?

5,501 posted on 05/03/2006 3:48:06 PM PDT by Dr. Eckleburg ("I don't think they want my respect; I think they want my submission." - Flemming Rose)
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; HarleyD; Forest Keeper; qua; jo kus

Jesus came "for the lost sheep of Israel", which ties in nicely with Harley's assertion of a post ago. In fact, like it or lump it, the Jews are Calvinists. :)


5,502 posted on 05/03/2006 3:54:30 PM PDT by 1000 silverlings
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To: Dr. Eckleburg; jo kus; HarleyD; Forest Keeper; kosta50; blue-duncan
A close reading of the Hebrew text reveals that when Jacob kept flocks, some of these "sheep" are clearly intended to be different from other sheep. Jewish belief is that these souls were human. Note that Jesus also refers to his flock as "sheep". In the bible, not all sheep are sheep, nor are all sheep equal. These are the elect.
5,504 posted on 05/03/2006 4:07:22 PM PDT by 1000 silverlings
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To: Dr. Eckleburg
John 17:9 is not refering to individual predestination, but to the People of God, the community of people that Christ came to establish, which was to include Gentiles. The same can be said for John 10. Jesus did not come to give individual salvation to scattered invisible believers, but to His People gathered together in a visible community. This should be obvious from His formation of 12 Apostles, symbolic of the original People of God.

Christ's death was sufficient for all, but efficacious only for the elect whom God has given Christ to redeem.

As I said before, I agree with this general statement, although I am positive we mean different things by it. God gives sufficient saving grace to all men, but only some will utilize it for their own salvation - which would make it efficacious.

Christ's death did not make salvation possible; His death saves. It saves only those who believe, who repent of turning from Christ. It is OFFERED to men in different manners. Christ's did not only preach to those who "would" believe Him as decreed by God before time began! He didn't die for only those men who were previously decreed to turn to Him. Otherwise, you are saying God positively sends people to hell and is thus the Creator of sin. I cannot consider that as a Christian teaching.

Man-centered philosophies will always tell you that His work is incomplete and variable and in need of augmentation by other men and institutions.

Rhetoric. God died for the sin of all men, but all men will not be saved. If God desires all men to be saved, then there is something else in the formula that is missing - and that would be man's response to God's grace...

You didn't answer my question earlier. Did Christ die for your sins, or not, jo kus?

Christ died for ALL men's sins - so I would be included, correct?

Regards

5,528 posted on 05/03/2006 4:58:15 PM PDT by jo kus (I will run the way of thy commandments, when thou shalt enlarge my heart...Psalm 119:32)
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