Allowance has nothing to do with who is the author of evil because God allows us to be wicked or good. If we choose to be wicked, we do so on our own because He doesn't help us commit sin, so we commit sin all on our own. On the other hand, if we wish to do good and ask Him for help, He will grant our wish and help us do good.
That sums up the one, holy, catholic, and apostolic Church's stance. Man has free will, given by God, since we were made in His image. I don't see this issue being resolved by force of argument - there is Scriptural verses that note both sides of the argument. We must rely on our respective Traditions and religious paradigms to interpret WHAT Scripture means. Which verses do we emphasize, and which ones do we consider as meant only for a certain time and people? If we believe that Jesus Christ is the culmination of God's revelation, I believe that answer lies with the fact that man has free will and is expected to utilize it to come to believe in Jesus Christ through God's graces. Those who focus on God's sovereignty to the extent of refuting free will must refer to the Old Testament in most cases.
Those are my opinions. I think we have said enough on the issue of free will. God bless to you all!
Regards
Oh no you don't....get back here. :O)
"Man has free will, given by God, since we were made in His image."
Then how do you account for the universality of sin, ie.e. "there is none righteous (excepting the Lord Jesus) no not one"? "All have sinned and come short of the glory of God". You would think if man had true free will there would be at least one who always made the right choices.
Choices of the will are determined by man's character or they are ethically worthless and are of no moral value. Character is determined by culture, education, parenting, experiences and physical, intellectual and emotional abilities. How then can you say choices are "free" when the are conditioned so?