Arguing the development of the Bible with Catholics is a futile cause. When I point out that some don't believe the written scriptures came in to existent until the 3-4 century and I'm told I'm wrong that no body states this (please refer to former posts). THEN those same people turn right around and say there wasn't anything written until the 3-4 century.
Paul hands Timothy a letter, a letter which Peter declares to be inspired and one that the Church has deemed to be inspired, and I'm told "St. Paul's writing did not exist yet." and Timothy was only reading from the Old Testament even though Timothy was reading from 1 Timothy. DUH!!! I understand it isn't REALLY inspired writing until the "Church" has said it is inspired writing. Well
Harley, please, get a grammar book. A Protestant grammar book will do. This is my sentence, which you quote:
We do not see that Timothy knows the New Testament Canon, which as of St. Paul's writing did not exist yet.It parses thus:
We do not see XX ::= Timothy knows the New Testament Canon, which Y
Y ::= as of Z did not exist yet
Z ::= St. Paul's writing
1 Timothy did exist. The canon as of the writing of 1 Timothy did not.
The scripture Timothy knew since his youth did not contain the letter St. Paul wrote to him.
The letter to Timothy is not the entire New Testament canon.