14 But continue thou in those things which thou hast learned, and which have been committed to thee: knowing of whom thou hast learned them; 15 And because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures, which can instruct thee to salvation, by the faith which is in Christ Jesus. 16 All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, 17 That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work.What do we see here? First, verse 14 refers to oral teaching. Second, that the scripture thus described is something Timothy knew from infancy, which means the Old Testament. Third, that such scripture that is inspired is useful in teaching, correction, and generally in every good work. Now, what do we not see? We do not see that Timothy knows the New Testament Canon, which as of St. Paul's writing did not exist yet. Generally, in this passage we do not see any way to tell which scripture is inspired.(2 Timothy 3)
Arguing the development of the Bible with Catholics is a futile cause. When I point out that some don't believe the written scriptures came in to existent until the 3-4 century and I'm told I'm wrong that no body states this (please refer to former posts). THEN those same people turn right around and say there wasn't anything written until the 3-4 century.
Paul hands Timothy a letter, a letter which Peter declares to be inspired and one that the Church has deemed to be inspired, and I'm told "St. Paul's writing did not exist yet." and Timothy was only reading from the Old Testament even though Timothy was reading from 1 Timothy. DUH!!! I understand it isn't REALLY inspired writing until the "Church" has said it is inspired writing. Well