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Radbertus & Ratramnus: A Ninth Century Debate over the Lord's Supper
Reformation Ink ^ | 2000 | Shane Rosenthal

Posted on 04/08/2004 9:08:23 AM PDT by HarleyD

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To: polemikos
Jesus used very explicit words, and the Jews understood him literally. Jesus starts off using the Greek phago ("to eat") (Jn 6:49, 50, 52, 53), the typical word for eating, but one which can carry a symbolic meaning.

I agree that why Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that proceedith from the mouth of God.

Just because it is spiritual does not mean that it not literal. Something to think about.
21 posted on 04/13/2004 8:28:02 AM PDT by Warlord David
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To: Warlord David
I agree that why Jesus said that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that proceedith from the mouth of God.

I don't follow your point. You agree with what?

Just because it is spiritual does not mean that it not literal. Something to think about.

Are you saying that you now agree with the literal (Catholic) interpretation of John 6? I don't follow your point.
22 posted on 04/13/2004 9:14:07 AM PDT by polemikos (Ecce Agnus Dei)
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