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To: ArGee
Isaiah 7:14 "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel. (KJV)

But... What does the Jewish Tanakh (Masorectic Text) say:

Isaiah 7:14 "Assuredly, my Lord will give you a sign of His own accord! Look, the young woman is with child and about to give birth to a son. Let her name him Immanuel."

How did the original text of 'young woman' get CHANGED to a 'virgin'???

The word "HaAlmah" (which is in the Hebrew text) means "the young woman", while the word for "virgin" is "Bethulah."

The Hebrew word “HaAlmah” was purposefully mistranslated by the Essenes of Alexandria, Egypt, as “Bethulah” in the translation of the Hebrew Scriptures into the Greek.

According to the King James Version (KJV) the verses says: "...Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son and call his name Immanuel." Translators hotly debate the use of the word "virgin" which came from the Hebrew word "almah." Hebraic scholars say "almah" means a "young woman" not a virgin. They further contend that the real Hebrew word for virgin is "bethulah." They refer to Gen. 24:43 and Ex. 2:8 which show "almah" means a maid, not virgin.

Who knows Hebrew better, the Hebrews or the Christians? The Hebrews say in their Masoretic text that "almah" should be translated as the young woman, not virgin.

Some scholars further allege that "shall conceive" should have been translated as "is with" child which is in the present tense and shows the prophecy pertains to a woman existing in Isaiah's time.

Other critics of Christianity's claim note that "shall conceive" was translated from "harah" which actually means “has Conceived." They say "harah" (conceived) is the Hebrew perfect tense, which represents past completed action in English.

The Jews, contrary to false tradition, did not translate the Prophets or the Writings into Greek. The Rabbis only translated the Torah. This means that Alexandrian Jews or non-Jews translated the rest of the Jewish Scriptures into Greek much later and the Rabbis from Palestine had nothing to do with it. This explains why pagan traditions crept into the text and the translation.

The Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures chose another word in place of “almah-young woman” which conveyed a completely different idea... ”parthenos-virgin.”

71 Rabbis translated the Torah; yet it was not they who translated the sefer naviim (book of prophets)! It was the result of Essene (proto-Christians) authors who translated sefer naviim from Hebrew into the language of the pagans. When the Christian bible was translated to Latin, the mistake was intentionally kept in, even though the original Hebrew text was still available!

Not that it matters, because this isn't even a Messianic prophecy!

Jesus was never referred to as Immanuel in the New Testament, is never called Immanuel except by those who do so in order to fulfill the prophecy, and according to Luke 1:31 was to be called Jesus, not Immanuel.

262 posted on 11/10/2001 12:08:27 PM PST by ET(end tyranny)
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To: ET(end tyranny)
The Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures chose another word in place of ?almah-young woman? which conveyed a completely different idea... ?parthenos-virgin.?

The Greek translation was done by Jews centuries before Christ. Why do you think they chose "virgin"? They were 2200 years closer to the language than you are. It wouldn't really be a sign if a man were born of a young woman, would it? The reason the Greek translation is designated by LXX, as you should know, is because there were seventy JEWish scholars (scholars!) who claimed that the translation was unanimous--- NOT ONE dissenter.

I happened into a very nice antique store today. There were some beautiful plaster bookends showing a lion with his paw on the throat of a hissing serpent. If they were metal, I would have purchased them. I like the symbolism.

266 posted on 11/10/2001 10:27:39 PM PST by Dataman
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