Reggie, when a newer "modern" translation is issued the old ones are not retracted. They were approved and remain approved. The issue here revolves around the proper translation of the underlying Greek, so any translation into another language is not authoritative.
SD
(the8088bass)-Now we're getting to the meat. The bottom line (as I see it, correct me if I'm wrong) is that the Catholic conception of original sin leads a Catholic to the logical conclusion that Mary was without sin her entire life. And further, that she was immaculately conceived. Perhaps this is the sticking point for Protestants in the argument over Mary's children (it is for me). Perhaps this foundational argument is the real problem that we have with perpetual virginity.
The concept of Original Sin leads to the IC (disrupting the transmission of OS). It doesn't speak to the lack of personal (regular everday) sin. Adam and Eve had no OS, but they were capable of sin. Mary had no OS and was capable of sin. That she did not sin was a special grace given to her but I believe it is a separate issue from the IC.
I am waiting for a reply from SoothingDave on this same question. It appears that Romans 3: suggests not only do all (includes Mary) have sin but that we are saved on "faith alone". It is just possible this is a difficult question to respond to.
Romans 3:
22 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction;
23 since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,
24 they are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus,
Romans does not suggest that "all" have sinned, as we define "all." Again we see the use of Hebraic hyperbole. Jesus did not sin. We are told that Job did not sin. "All" here does not mean "everyone."
Everyone who is saved, including Mary, is saved because of the grace of God, through no merit of their own.
SD