[T.B. Yoits]

Our Founding Fathers would not think that. They allowed only land holders to vote, and no women at all.

That's not true. Some states allowed both male and female voters without being landholders if they had a certain amount of financial holdings. Some states allowed blacks to vote as well. Later, the Democrats pushed through legislation in most of these states to remove the right to vote.

[odawg]

“That’s not true. Some states allowed both male and female voters...”

I am referring to when the Constitution was written and adopted in 1789. Only men could vote who owned land.

Why did it require a Constitutional amendment to allow women the vote if they were already voting?