You know per laws applicable to 1970 it is settled. I think the lawyer is pimping. Has the SCOTUS ever taken a case without it moving through the court system?
There are some instances where the USSC does have original jurisdiction but I'm not sure what they are or whether this matter would rise to that level.
“Has the SCOTUS ever taken a case without it moving through the court system?”
Yes, they have the ability to claim “original jurisdiction” over certain types of cases (disputes between states, for example). They don’t always exercise it, but do use that power fairly regularly.