Posted on 05/29/2012 3:37:40 PM PDT by Eleutheria5
Palestinian Authority Arabs’ claims to land in Judea and Samaria are often meaningless, says Moshe Zar, one of the main land salesmen in the region. The reason goes back to King Hussein’s distribution of land decades ago, he said.
“Hussain wanted to compensate the Palestinian families whose relatives he had murdered, so he gave them free land,” Zar told Arutz Sheva. “In reality, the distribution of land cannot be considered to be in effect, because it does not match the conditions on the ground.” The land was given out randomly by drawing lines on a map, he explained, and many land plots are actually craters or rivers.
“Nobody ever worked that land… A real legal investigation will show immediately that the land doesn’t belong to anybody,”...
(Excerpt) Read more at israelnationalnews.com ...
It was never Hussein’s land to give away.
Let Saudi Arabia buy them out and welcome them as Whabbist refugees.
The descendant of the Unholy Pedophile cannot give away a single inch of the Holy Land that G-d gave to His People.
Thanks Eleutheria5.
The legal argument that could be made was that Hussein as sovereign king could expropriate land just as governments in the US do, under eminent domain. But do make that argument, you’d have to concede the legitimacy of his occupation of Juda and Samaria after 1948, and annexation after 1953. The Palis, then, in order to claim ownership of the land by virtue of a grant from King H, would have to eschew their own right to it as a sovereign nation (that never existed). Perhaps they could claim that his acts as sovereign were legitimate during his time of occupation, but then they’d open the door and have to explain why Israeli sovereign acts are not legitimate during a similar period. No matter how you look at it, they cannot make a logically consistent claim to the land based on those grants.
If you’d like to be on or off, please FR mail me.
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Israel’s fault. /sarc
The only problem is that he was giving away land to compensate so called Palestinians for murdering them in Jordan. That was taking place after Israel had already taken Judea and Samaria in 67, so there is no standard by which that was Hussein’s land to give away.
So he was murdering people in Jordan after 1967, or granting land in Juda and Samaria after 1967, or both? Or did he forget which and just say, “oh, never mind. Here.”?
His massive slaughter of Palestinians took place in 1970, the so called Black September.
So they were both killed after 1967, and their heirs got their land grant after 1967, and somehow the Israeli courts take this seriously? They’ve been channeling the One Source too long, and now they’re crazy (Robert Jordan allusion).
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