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To: Goreknowshowtocheat
How does the 17th Amendment deny states equal suffrage in the Senate? All it changes is the method for choosing the senators. They still have the same number.

You might want to read up on the 17th. There were a lot of good reasons for passing it at the time, and by the time of its passage, most states had, on their own, gone to a form of direct election.

1,149 posted on 10/19/2010 7:36:55 AM PDT by Bubba Ho-Tep ("More weight!"--Giles Corey)
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To: Bubba Ho-Tep

I have explained what a state is before. A state is not the people of the state. A state is an entity. Those entities were deprived of their sufferage without their consent. That is why Madison went to such lengths to protect their sufferage. They were essential to what he called the republic. The states have no sufferage in the Senate.


1,153 posted on 10/19/2010 8:38:19 AM PDT by Goreknowshowtocheat
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To: Bubba Ho-Tep

The 17th Amendment denies States themselves representation as it makes Senators directly elected by the people-of-the States rather than the people-acting-as-the-state [state legislators].


1,154 posted on 10/19/2010 8:45:51 AM PDT by OneWingedShark (Q: Why am I here? A: To do Justly, to love mercy, and to walk humbly with my God.)
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