Huh? Can some one explain this to me.
I guess the King will override one of his Lordships rules.
Not am explanation, per se, but an alternative idea. First here is what the 24th Amendment says, in part:
Poll Tax Barred. Ratified 1/23/1964. History
1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote in any primary or other election for President or Vice President, for electors for President or Vice President, or for Senator or Representative in Congress, shall not be denied or abridged by the United States or any State by reason of failure to pay any poll tax or other tax.
Here is what we do:
Charge a $100.00 fee for entry to a polling station. We then wave the fee for anyone who submits proof that they are a citizen.
We are in compliance with the above 24th Amendment, then correct?
Seriously though, if voting rights are not limited to US Citizens, why then are US Citizens specifically mentioned in the 24th Amendment?
The guy quoted in your post is wrong.
As Emory Law associate professor Michael Kang teaches his course this fall election law, he can't help reflecting on the influence of a similar class he took as a student at the University of Chicago Law Schooltaught by Barack Obama.
Kang was one of a dozen students in the fall of 1998 enrolled in Obama's course titled "Constitutional Law: Equal Protection and Due Process." ...
Kangs research focuses on voting rights, race, redistricting, campaign finance and direct democracy.
Source; http://www.emory.edu/home/news/releases/2008/09/teacher-learned-in-obama-classroom.html