I don't really see the connection between that and what were discussing.
The society this was written for was very different from our own and women were considered objects. By forcing the man who rapes a woman to marry her and NEVER BE ABLE TO DIVORCE HER, you are setting up a strong disincentive for any male to rape a woman. By requring him to pay the father, the law is rcognizing the cultural norm at the time that the crime was as much a crime against property as the father owned his children as well as his wife, as a crime against a person.
What this neolithic concept has to do with modern day people living in Saudi Arabia escapes me.
Perhaps you flunked logic also.
Actually, I got perfect scores on every exam, and scored an 800 on my GRE analytical section, but that was long, long ago...so perhaps you could formally clarify the logical fallacy you claim I have made.
The society this was written for was very different from our own and women were considered objects.
So what you're saying is that they must change their culture and abandon these practices, despite them being written in holy books. I am not Jewish and don't understand how they have abandoned such practices without the New Testament, but it seems to me that the "cultural norm" in the Arab world is the concept of women as property.
So perhaps it's not "Islam" per se, but rather the culture. How about other Muslim countries, outside the Arab world? Could it be that the culture and religion are so tied together in Islam, moreso than how most other religions are practiced today?
Have a Happy Thanksgiving! I've gotta hit the road!