"The Bible says that it is inspired (God-breathed) by God and that It does not have any origin in the will of man. Thus, it is a first-hand eyewitness account."
God wrote Himself, personally, without any intermediaries? If not, then it is NOT a first-hand eyewitness account.
"Do you have empirical evidence to refute this?"
1. The Deluge. Somehow, the entire world was covered with water to the point of being a bad Kevin Costner flick about 5-6,000 years ago, but there is exactly zero physical evidence to support said event having occured.
2. The Tower of Babel. Linguistic evidence does not support the notion that all of the languages of the world came into existence at the same instant.
3. Assuming that all men and women are descended from Eve...where the heck did Cain, Abel, and Seth get their wives? Or did they engage in incest? (Yuck.)
4. Mark, in his Gospel, manages to mislocate some important sites in Palestine.
It's worse than that. Everyone is descended from Noah and his children. There should only be one version of the Y chromosome. And speaking of incest...
Ya gotta sync the time markers on the tape just right....
Does the Linguistic evidence support the notion that all of the languages of the world came into existence evolving from one another?
1. What evidence would prove to you that there was a global flood?
2. Does the account of the tower of Babel state that all languages came into the world at the same instant? (no it does not...and what is your evidence for the evolution of language at all?)
3. Does incest, if it ocurred, refute that Scripture contains accurate eyewitness account? (no.)
4. Mark and Matthew both give the same account of Jesus's journey out of the vicinity of Tyre, through Sidon, down to the Sea of Galilee and into the region of Decapolis (Mark 7 and Matthew 15). Do you have evidence that Jesus did not take this journey as written? How does this route demonstrate that Mark manages to mislocate some important sites in Palestine?