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To: Carry_Okie

Pretty much. However, I forgot to add an important distinction: Congress could at will redefine the status of children born overseas. There is no constitutinoal provision there. However, the 14th Amendment is concrete.


65 posted on 11/16/2005 11:28:45 AM PST by Melas (What!? Read or learn something? Why would anyone do that, when they can just go on being stupid)
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To: Melas
I disagree, as a minor point in consequence but a major point in principle.

Just because the Constitution is silent on a specific matter is NOT assent for Congress to act; indeed, quite the contrary. Congress only has the powers that the Constitution specifically enumerates. Congress does have the Constitutional power to naturalize the child, but as far as I know naturalization applies only upon the birthdate of majority.

66 posted on 11/16/2005 11:34:11 AM PST by Carry_Okie (There are people in power who are truly evil.)
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To: Melas
Congress could at will redefine the status of children born overseas.

Prospectively, anyway, not retrospectively.

67 posted on 11/16/2005 11:34:35 AM PST by inquest (FTAA delenda est)
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