To: MitchellC
Legitimately?
Just because any particular theist believes his moral code can be applied to others doesn't mean he hasn't decided that he prefers (or likes) his code more than any other. It's still a matter of preference.
To: BikerNYC
This may be true but is beside the point. The inherent amorality of atheism means that it gives no reason to the atheist to seek that any code of morality is applied to others; such a mission is not and could not be derived from the person's atheism.
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