Pakistan and Afghanistan?
Probably best if they remain hidden.
There are at least three spread across Pakisan (1) and Afghanistan (2) that are in Aramaic -- as Jacobovici put it, postcards from the Lost Tribes. There's simply no other plausible explanation for the presence of Aramaic in that region at that time.
I wonder about Ashoka’s empire — around 300 BC. What parts of India would have been populated? Most likely the Ganga-Jamuna river valley, Punjab and the coastlines. The interiors would remain non-Aryan for a long time yet and the furthest east would be Bengal.