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To: CCWoody; RnMomof7; Jerry_M; jude24; the_doc
Of course, as one whom I believe has professed a belief in 14 different gospels, I would not expect you to even know what the gospel is, much less express it.

Speaking of twisting words. I only stated that there are something like 14 gospels in the Bible; nowhere did I say I believed any other than the gospel of grace.

The kingdom of God is not coming to earth; it has already come: Matthew 12:28-30 But if I cast out demons by the Spirit of God, surely the kingdom of God has come upon you. Or how can one enter a strong man's house and plunder his goods, unless he first binds the strong man? And then he will plunder his house. He who is not with Me is against Me, and he who does not gather with Me scatters abroad

First, I responded to this passage in a post long ago, maybe it was in reply to you, I don't recall, so I'll address a different issue here. In verse 28, note it says "if" and in your quote it says "surely". In the KJV, the "surely" is translated "then." An if-than connection is always a conditional statement. In this instance, it is a hypothethical senario that would become reality if they would believe that He is their Messiah. Christ was telling the religious leadership/intelligensia what they should have known about Him and what He was doing from the prophetic scriptures, particularly how Israel needed to be cleansed of demons and sicknesses before the kingdom came. But they didn't any more than you do by believing that the kingdom of God is here on earth today, at least by inference from your statement.

The kingdom wasn't there then, and it's not here yet today. They knew, or at least should have known, that Christ had to suffer first, which had been prophesized by many OT writers, especially Isaiah, before His glory. They also should have known that the prophesized Great Tribulation, or the day of Jacob's trouble (day of wrath) had to occur before the kingdom would come. They also should have known by prophecy that Christ would return in glory at the end of the Great Tribulation to establish His throne (David's) and His Kingdom. Peter states in 1Pe. 1:9-12 that the prophets themselves didn't understand the meaning of, and the timing of the "sufferings of Christ" and the "glory that should follow." The "glory" refers to returning in glory to establish the kingdom.

The foretaste of the kingdom began for the "little flock" of true Jewish believers in Acts 2-5, but it ceased when Israel blasphemed the Holy Ghost, when the unpardonable sin was committed by the stoning of Stephen in Acts 7. Had the program continued, the great tribulation was the next event in Israel's prophetic calendar followed by the kingdom. Thus the kingdom is not here as yet, but will be established in the future. This is according to the Bible, not some twisting of scriptures to support an end times position.

Now, one more time, the gospel has a proper name that is exactly 5 words and the gospel can be expressed in exactly 3 words. Can you do it?

I indicated before that if you want to enlighten me, that's fine. I would like to see your version of the gospel.

P.S. The rest of your post is just as contrary to the gospel as the part I chose to address.

I'm sincerely sorry you feel this way, but hopefully you'll yet see the light.

2,055 posted on 12/12/2002 12:50:36 PM PST by gracebeliever
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To: gracebeliever
I only stated that there are something like 14 gospels in the Bible; nowhere did I say I believed any other than the gospel of grace.

You'd better clarify, and damn quick.

There is only one Gospel in Scripture. "But even if we, or an angel from heaven, preach to you any other gospel to you than that which we have preached to you, let him be damned!" (Gal 1:8, my translation).

The only possible explanation I can see, giving you all the benifit of the doubt, is if by your statement you mean there are 14 distinct references to the Gospel, such as "the glorious gospel of the Blessed God." (1 Tim. 1:11). But something tells me that is not what you mean....

2,057 posted on 12/12/2002 1:03:31 PM PST by jude24
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To: gracebeliever; jude24; Jerry_M
The kingdom wasn't there then, and it's not here yet today. ~ "grace"believer Woody.
2,062 posted on 12/12/2002 1:33:36 PM PST by CCWoody
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To: gracebeliever
The kingdom of God is not coming to earth; it has already come: Matthew 12:28-30 But if I cast out demons by the Spirit of God, surely the kingdom of God has come upon you....

So, since Woody thinks the Kingdom of God has already come, and then cites Matt. 12:28-30, it seems that the Kingdom of God consists of casting out demons. That's how he interprets that, anyway. The Kingdom of God = casting out demons...says so in Matt.12:28. Do I need to point out the obvious, that Jesus was referring to one aspect of the Kingdom of God, that of releasing people from bondage. But that is not the whole Kingdom of God, is it? So wouldn't it be innaccurate to cite this verse to prove the Kingdom of God has already come?

Context, people, context!

2,089 posted on 12/12/2002 8:39:12 PM PST by nobdysfool
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