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To: Mygirlsmom
If Dumbledore possessed the Elder wand, presumably since 1945 (his defeat of Grindelwald as stated in the Chocolate Frog card), why do you all think he didn't use it to defeat Voldemort the first time - before he killed the Potters?

Interesting question. Probably because Dumbledore was hunting for the horcruxes, and those had to be destroyed before he took on Voldemort directly.

And so, in their duel in OOTP, we see Dumbledore seeking to capture, not kill, Voldemort. But he still wins, in that Voldemort fails to defeat him in the duel.

(The movie version really does justice to that particular part -- it really gives a sense of two awesome wizarding powers taking each other on.)

933 posted on 07/24/2007 8:44:28 AM PDT by r9etb
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To: r9etb
Interesting question. Probably because Dumbledore was hunting for the horcruxes, and those had to be destroyed before he took on Voldemort directly.

Maybe, but it seemed that the knowledge of the Horcruxes was late in coming to Dumbledore - he only suspected in the later years and then sought to interview those who could confirm his suspicions.

935 posted on 07/24/2007 8:47:57 AM PDT by Mygirlsmom (I practice Calorie Offset Trading. I eat a candy bar & pay my kid 10 bucks to run around the block)
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