No more than I can point you to the "right to privacy" language used in Roe v Wade or to the "concealed carry" language used in the 2nd amendment.
Are you saying the exact wording has to be in the U.S. Constitution for it to be valid? I do await your answer on this one.
"In other words, Congress has the right to regulate intrastate activity because anything done by every state within its borders would have an effect on interstate trade."
Hmmmm. I thought I was pretty clear. I'll try again.
Congress has the right to regulate legislate intrastate activity because if they determine that anything done by every state within its borders would have an a substantial effect on interstate trade they're currently regulating.