[A_perfect_lady]

1946 was the first full year after WW2. It was likely that it was a pent up demand bump.

I won't argue with that, that makes sense. I think there was a similar surge after WWI. In fact, the situation was ideal for the men who survived the war and came home: lots of lonely women, and not a lot of competition! =)

[FLT-bird]

I won't argue with that, that makes sense. I think there was a similar surge after WWI. In fact, the situation was ideal for the men who survived the war and came home: lots of lonely women, and not a lot of competition! =)

WWI Britain or France or WWII Russia or Berlin? Sure. WWII America? No. We thankfully did not suffer so many casualties as to cause a huge demographic imbalance....ie not enough men died to greatly drive up the value of men. The reason the marriage and birth rates were so high after the war was pent up demand from 4 years of lots of young men being away fighting.