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To: DoodleDawg; BroJoeK; OIFVeteran; HandyDandy; DiogenesLamp
“Would they now? Why would they pay for something that you claim that they owned the moment of secession? Are you suggesting that the fort really did belong to the U.S. when the South bombarded it?”

The South wanted peace and was willing to negotiate all disagreements with the United States. That much is clear from the resolution passed by the Confederate Congress.

Lincoln could have negotiated a just monetary settlement for federal property. If he had tried and failed, whatever moral authority he had to kill his economic and political rivals he would have still had. He refused to even try.

“Resolved by the Confederate States of America in Congress Assembled, That it is the sense of this Congress that a commission of three persons be appointed by the President elect, as early as may be convenient after his inauguration, and sent to the government of the United States of America, for the purpose of negotiating friendly relations between that government and the Confederate States of America, and for the settlement of all questions of disagreement between the two governments upon principles of right, justice, equity, and good faith.”

1,168 posted on 06/13/2018 11:08:15 AM PDT by jeffersondem
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To: jeffersondem
The South wanted peace and was willing to negotiate all disagreements with the United States. That much is clear from the resolution passed by the Confederate Congress.

But that's not what you said way, way, way back in reply 1075. There you were referring to the U.S. as the "former owners" implying that change of ownership had taken place. Now you're saying that the South would have paid for it? Why would they pay for something you say that they owned?

“Resolved by the Confederate States of America in Congress Assembled, That it is the sense of this Congress that a commission of three persons be appointed by the President elect, as early as may be convenient after his inauguration, and sent to the government of the United States of America, for the purpose of negotiating friendly relations between that government and the Confederate States of America, and for the settlement of all questions of disagreement between the two governments upon principles of right, justice, equity, and good faith.”

When he wrote his letter to Lincoln why do you suppose Davis left out that part about settling matters of disagreement? Did he forget it? Or was he just not interested in that part do you think?

1,172 posted on 06/13/2018 11:43:17 AM PDT by DoodleDawg
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