>> “Were they given to him by the Father?” <<
>> “Were they ever in his hand at all?” <<
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These are the excellent questions I was trying to get you to see. They are the ones that blow big holes in your man made theology.
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Then why did you claim that he was talking about the Twelve?
They are the ones that blow big holes in your man made theology.
Really?
Where has my man-made theology
been inadequate? The words were spoken by Jesus, and I was quite plain in Post 181 that the self-perceived state of being in his hand
could well be self-deception.
You, on the other hand, said in Post 180 that Jesus didn't say that he would lose none of those given him; in Post 177 that this assurance was only to the Twelve (ironically, in Post 182 wherein you were trying to support this you bolded the underlined Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word;
which is obviously not the Twelve) — which is easily disproven.
Why then should I hold that your understanding of Theology is better than mine? Or that your condemnation of it (as man made
) is of any merit?