Posted on 10/29/2014 10:39:34 PM PDT by Tolerance Sucks Rocks
So why shouldn't they believe in their own version of the "science" of Ebola?
All are phony and based on false premises, just like the Leftists.
I believe the 50-day survival rate was achieved at a temperature of 4 degrees Centigrade. The insides of buses, trains and bathrooms will usually be warmer than that.
On the other hand, I’d hate to be on some Ebola victim’s property in the wintertime. :-(
He’s not a hack. He was Bloomberg’s “tobacco czar” LOL.
Actually, there are doctors who argue a person can be contagious prior to symptoms. Furthermore, fever, which our government seems to regard as the “tell” for Ebola, does not occur in roughly 1 out of 7 victims.
So somebody who picked up the virus from a doctor’s waiting room might feel fatigue, but with no fever, he might not worry until he started blowing his lunch at Starbucks. By then, other people at Starbucks might be infected.
Furthermore, bodily fluids can be in the air as aerosols, which would basically be invisible to somebody my age, due to the natural degradation of near-vision that occurs in middle age.
If a victim has viremia (widspread viral spread throughout the body) prior to symptoms, he could conceivably spread Ebola through something as innocent as coughing or sneezing.
Thanks for the ping!
I do not know how an asymptomatic person could spread the disease. One of the reasons the virus provokes massive vomiting and diarrhea is to escape its host and find a new one. Otherwise, the virus either dies with the host, or dies when the host clears the disease.
Fever is not the only symptom. Early Ebola symptoms are flu-like. Later, it progresses to causing massive vomiting and diarrhea. As the disease progresses and the virus multiplies, it becomes more contagious.
My point is that some people have said that viremia (when the virus hits the bloodstream) could occur prior to symptoms, making the person more likely to secrete the virus BEFORE he starts to feel ill.
Since the person secretes the virus through vomit and diarrhea and other bodily fluids that are contaminated with blood, and none of those fluids are produced prior to symptoms, how can they secrete virus unless they are symptomatic?
Sweat, tears and urine.
For example, the virus can show up in semen long after the victim recovers. Who’s to say it won’t show up in that medium prior to symptoms.
In order for the virus to show up in bodily fluids, there must be a lot of virus in the blood. There also must be a pathway for the virus to get from the blood to the fluid. None of this will happen early in the disease, or before a person becomes symptomatic. Early in the disease, there is very little or no virus in the blood--it often cannot be detected by PCR, a very sensitive technique--until the person has had symptoms for a couple of days or so. The more sick and debilitated a person becomes, the more virus is present in the blood, and the more can escape into other bodily fluids.
Studies on how, exactly, the virus gets into various bodily fluids, have not been done. The most comprehensive study done to date, by Bausch et al. (http://jid.oxfordjournals.org/content/196/Supplement_2/S142.full.pdf+html) found virus in a number of bodily fluids, but it was only infectious in 1 out of 12 saliva samples, 1 of 1 breast milk sample, and 1 of 2 semen samples. This study is limited because of small sample sizes.
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