I have read such numbers in the other places. I would like to know background of this value.
Concerning the 5-10ppm:
How was it determined and is it variable over time/area?
Have worldwide measurements over the decades across the globe verified this number?
Does this number originate with "consensus" scientists, or is someone of the character of Professor Linzden of MIT part of this determination?
Throughout the year, is this value linear across all points over water?
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I have great distrust and anger at many of the so called Climate Scientists that are truly corrupting "real" science by knowingly fudging data and unscientifically attacking so called deniers.
What Faux Professor Mann did is so unprofessional he should have resigned in disgrace. But no, he is still lauded. It's sad how this issue is so politicized -- another example of how the left is destroying everything, thus revealing themselves as evil to their core.
Henry's law for solubility of gases in water and estimates of sea surface temperatures and some (not comprehensive) measurements of CO2 in the sea surfaces
Have worldwide measurements over the decades across the globe verified this number?
Very hard to measure, so no.
Does this number originate with "consensus" scientists, or is someone of the character of Professor Linzden of MIT part of this determination?
Lindzen starts out in a 1994 paper: "The question of global climate change has been a major item on the political agenda for several years now. Politically, the main concern has been the impact of anthropogenic increases in minor greenhousegases (the major greenhousegas is water vapor). The question is also an interesting scientific question. Restricting ourselves to issues of climate, the answer requires that we be able to answer at least two far more fundamental questions, both involving strong fluid mechanical components:
1. What determines the mean temperature of the Earth?; and
2. What determines the equator-pole temperature distribution of the Earth’s surface?"
Throughout the year, is this value linear across all points over water?
Definitely not. There is much more uptake than outgassing in high latitudes and much more outgassing than uptake in lower latitudes. Likewise more outgassing in summer than winter, etc. Also the ocean uptake and outgassing and vegetative cycling of CO2 is about 100 times greater than manmade CO2.
But by far the simplest explanation, that fits with the known evidence, is that nature was a source for CO2 up to around the 1800's when deforestation and manmade CO2 evened things up and now nature is a sink for CO2. We have some reforestation working to reduce CO2 (still IIRC net deforestation) but we have had never ending (exception for recessions) increases in fossil fuel burning.