To: Congressman Billybob
John, If you pass a statute that certain persons born in the US who are physically present in the US are not subject to the jurisdiction of the US, how would you justify prosecuting such a person if he commits a Federal crime in the US? After all, such a person is not subject to the jurisdiction of the US even though he is physically present in the US.
Or is the legal word "jurisdiction" to be given diametrically opposite meanings depending on the particular context (criminal prosecution vs. citizenship)? Or are there multiple aspects of "jurisdiction that can be changed by statute for some purposes but not others?
I don't know the answer--just asking.
posted on 08/06/2010 6:14:54 PM PDT
To: nvskibum; Congressman Billybob
Seems to me that the 14th Amendment is written to address a specific issue relative to citizenship. Thus, issues related to criminality are not touched upon here. It is internationally recognized that a person visiting another country is subject to being held accountable when they violate laws of that country.
posted on 08/06/2010 6:22:52 PM PDT
(Proud Papa of two new Army Brats! Congrats to my Soldier son and his wife.)
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson