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Latest NIV Bible Translation Clearer on Homosexual Sins, Says Theologian
Christian Post ^ | 01/05/2012 | Michael Gryboski

Posted on 01/05/2012 7:07:55 PM PST by SeekAndFind

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To: aruanan

Well written and informative post(s). I really appreciate your effort here and thank you for pinging me to this thread.


61 posted on 01/07/2012 2:10:28 PM PST by D-fendr (Deus non alligatur sacramentis sed nos alligamur.)
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To: aruanan
Then you've come up with a novel idea of inerrancy hitherto unknown before the beginning of the KJV-only movement.

Yes, because no one ever viewed the KJV as inerrant... [/sarc]

Then you've come up with a novel idea of evidence that provides no way at all for you to discover whether you are in error or in truth.

It's called blind faith. I believe that the earth is only a few thousand years old. I believe that the KJV is inerrant. Both because of faith. I need no other basis.

So the doctor who applies pressure to a severed artery and prevents a bleed-out that would lead to death within a few seconds doesn't "really have any control over what happens" to the patient. And a doctor who sets a multiply fractured femur that otherwise would leave someone with a crippled leg is simply an "illusion of choice" standing outside the mandating stream of destiny. And all appearances to the contrary, experienced by many millions of people over thousands of years, are illusions with no objective reality because of your inner certainty to the contrary?

Yep.
62 posted on 01/07/2012 2:37:12 PM PST by arderkrag (Georgia is God's Country. LOOKING FOR ROLEPLAYERS. Check Profile.)
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To: SeekAndFind

I do not know how it could be any more clear than any of the translations i have read, but they can sell new Bibles.


63 posted on 01/07/2012 5:30:13 PM PST by ravenwolf (reIf you believe that Nero was the anti-Christ, and among othJust a bit of the long list of proofsre)
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To: arderkrag; D-fendr
Then you've come up with a novel idea of evidence that provides no way at all for you to discover whether you are in error or in truth.
--aruanan

A. It's called blind faith. I believe that the earth is only a few thousand years old. I believe that the KJV is inerrant. Both because of faith. I need no other basis.

From your FR page:

B. If I had to describe my outlook, it would be Objectivism tempered by Christianity. Reason is the highest absolute of the human existence, and reason equals the fear of God.

How do you reconcile the irrationality of A. with B. in which you claim that reason is the highest absolute of the human existence, unless you're engaging in the fallacy of equivocation between the two instances of the word "reason" in that sentence?

I suppose you could be trapped in the relatively modern use of the word "faith" to denote a condition that is the antithesis of reason, so that all things that apply to reason (such as deduction, proofs, evidence, consistency) by definition don't apply to faith and then, purely in an ad hoc manner, as an act of will rather than reason, declare all things having to do with God or religion, or more restrictively, all things having to do with Christianity, to be confined to the realm of faith (something like Sartre's authentication of self by an act of will, except in this case, it's an authentication of belief by act of will by removing the object of belief from anything open to inspection, evaluation, and reason).

If so, what are the criteria by which something can be removed to that category and made unassailable by reason and proof? What would someone say to induce you to include any particular thing in that category?
"A. The KJV is the inerrant word of God because B. _____"
Though it couldn't be that because that would be making a statement in which A depends on B and B is open to testing or verification and, apparently, testing and verification are anathema to blind faith. Is it just a latching onto something to believe as true while actively denying any attempt for substantiation, the fear being that a desire for substantiation is a rejection of faith, faith being held as the belief of something for which there can be no proof? This, however, is a purely arbitrary definition.

If, however, faith being held as the belief of something for which there can be no proof, then does it matter whether what is in that category of "blind faith" has any necessary relationship to reality as open to experience, knowledge, and reason? Is it only necessary that there exist such a category, regardless of whatever happens to be its object, so that literally anything could be its object so long as "blind faith" was being exercised? If one believed that Mickey Mouse died to save his soul and was truly resistant to any attempt to dissuade him from that, would his resistance and his clinging to that image be a sufficient faith whereby he could be saved? Or would you say there wasn't sufficient warrant to believe that Mickey died for anyone's soul, much less existed, whereas Jesus did and that's what makes blind faith in Jesus efficacious? But then you'd be basing the efficacy of faith on the truth or falsehood of a proposition about something that actually existed, in which case it isn't blind.

As Paul said, “If only for this life we have hope in the Messiah, we are to be pitied more than all men." He said the efficacy of our faith depended not on the faith but on its object: a Messiah who had truly risen from the dead. He said that if Jesus had truly not been raised from the dead, then our faith is futile and we're still in our sins. So, to Paul at least, the objective reality of the Messiah's resurrection is what makes the difference between an efficacious faith and a useless faith. It's not only important that you believe, but what you believe in. And choosing what you believe in needs to be something more than a blind leap of faith.

God has not required this.

Note what Elijah said, "If the LORD is God, follow him; but if Baal is God, follow him." He gave them a choice, but it was based on a proposition that only one of these was actually God. He didn't say, "I believe that Yahweh is God in blind faith and you should too." He said, "Hey, let's have a contest. The priests of Baal and I will both build altars, stack them with wood, and we'll get a couple of bulls and I'll let them choose which bull they want to use. Then we'll cut up the bulls and arrange the sacrifice and each of us will call for our god to light the sacrifice and then we'll see who's really God." They agreed to it and got everything prepared. Elijah even let them go first. By noon nothing had happened except that Elijah started to taunt them. "Hey, where's Baal? Maybe he's taking a dump. Maybe he's off on a journey and can't hear you." So they yelled louder and cut themselves and continued until the time neared for the evening sacrifice.

Elijah rebuilt the Jewish altar that had been torn down. He dug a trench around it. He arranged his cut up bull on it and then had folks dump four barrels of water on it. And then had them do this two more times until the trench was filled with water. Then he stepped up and said something that didn't depend on anyone's blind faith:
“LORD, the God of Abraham, Isaac and Israel, let it be known today that you are God in Israel and that I am your servant and have done all these things at your command. Answer me, LORD, answer me, so these people will know that you, LORD, are God, and that you are turning their hearts back again.”
And the fire fell and burned up the sacrifice and the wood and the stones and the dirt and the water in the trench.

And then the people threw themselves down on the ground and yelled, "Yahweh truly is God. Yahweh truly is God."

Now the blind faith approach would say that we have to believe this simply because it's in the Bible. Another type of blind faith practitioner would say that it doesn't make any difference whether this was a factual account but that the important thing was that it stirs our faith in God. My own belief is that if it's in the Bible and didn't actually occur as something that we could conceivably take a trip in the wayback machine and make a video of it, then its value for purposes of faith or anything else is simply crap.
64 posted on 01/07/2012 7:34:49 PM PST by aruanan
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To: RC51
I always wondered why you don’t see the plague of STD’s ravaging the lesbian community such as AIDS & Hepatitis.

Probably because people weren't looking until rather recently (from 2004):
An estimated 2.3 million women specifically describe themselves as lesbian (3). Despite these considerable numbers, relatively little data are available on important health outcomes for these women, including prevalence of STI, HIV, and cervical cancer. Until recently, the major national women’s health studies did not collect information on same-sex behavior or sexual identity (4). In its 1999 report, Lesbian Health: Current Assessment and Directions for the Future, the Institute of Medicine emphasized that more data were needed on STIs, Pap smear screening, and risk for cervical cancer in lesbians (3).

65 posted on 01/07/2012 8:01:53 PM PST by aruanan
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To: aruanan
If so, what are the criteria by which something can be removed to that category and made unassailable by reason and proof? What would someone say to induce you to include any particular thing in that category?

If it has no material proof, then it's a matter of faith.

If one believed that Mickey Mouse died to save his soul and was truly resistant to any attempt to dissuade him from that, would his resistance and his clinging to that image be a sufficient faith whereby he could be saved?

No. You must be saved by the grace of God through faith in Christ. However, God's word says he only calls certain people. He already knows which ones will be saved or not.

Now the blind faith approach would say that we have to believe this simply because it's in the Bible.

Which is what I believe. Moreover, I believe that if it's in the Bible, then it happened.

Also, I have no problem resolving A with B.

If I had to describe my outlook, it would be Objectivism tempered by Christianity. Reason is the highest absolute of the human existence, and reason equals the fear of God.

I see nothing illogical here, and yes, the two instances of reason in this statement are indeed equivocal the way I'm using them.

By the way, you're incredibly long-winded on this subject. Have you tried Brevity®? Tastes great, less filling.
66 posted on 01/07/2012 8:53:04 PM PST by arderkrag (Georgia is God's Country. LOOKING FOR ROLEPLAYERS. Check Profile.)
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To: labette
I think the original translators lived in a time when homosexual behavior was universally understood rightly to be condemned as abominable sin. Thus the somewhat "soft-pedaled" wording; polite society didn't get into the sordid details of those things better left unsaid when everyone knew was was being discussed.

Now, unfortunately, sin must be spelled out in all its ugliness.

67 posted on 01/07/2012 9:16:33 PM PST by fwdude
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To: NELSON111

You mean the Deuterocanonical books.


68 posted on 01/07/2012 9:23:07 PM PST by conservativguy99
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To: arderkrag
By the way, you're incredibly long-winded on this subject. Have you tried Brevity®? Tastes great, less filling.

Well, thanks for reading anyway.
69 posted on 01/08/2012 6:18:21 AM PST by aruanan
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To: aruanan

No problem.


70 posted on 01/08/2012 9:41:23 AM PST by arderkrag (Georgia is God's Country. LOOKING FOR ROLEPLAYERS. Check Profile.)
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To: WKB

the NIV is not the product it is claimed to be.

Thank God I have the AV.


71 posted on 01/15/2012 6:17:31 PM PST by TFMcGuire (Liberalism Is Hatred)
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