Posted on 09/20/2022 7:08:20 AM PDT by rktman
Slavery was pretty much a private business matter.
Even if an emancipated slave was still alive, compensation would be due from the slave’s former master, and not the government.
“But why did they go to war to “free the slaves?” That could have been done peacefully using the constitutional amendment process in - say, 1848 - or even earlier.”
For some people the end of slavery was just a bellwether for the increasing and disproportional power of the Northern states. Also, a Constitutional amendment to end slavery prior to the Civil War would have never mustered the necessary state legislature votes for ratification.
The other issue wasn’t just North vs. South but a clash of Industrial/Urban culture with Agrarian/Rural culture. A paradigm that we see occurring today with urban leftists clashing with rural Americans.
No way would they have gotten 2/3 of the Senate.
They received no compensation for their lost property unlike the British.
I am surprised no one has promised (Mid-Terms and all) to submit a bill proposing making slavery a capital offense in the United States and US Territories; the scope including human trafficking for feeding the sex industry.
To include a special court that is funded to make it an HOV lane to the death house within a year.
They wouldn’t even broadcast this stuff at this point...
LOL. If Lemon had balls she would have ripped them right off of him.
If it is true that Lincoln did not have the votes to peacefully amend the pro-slavery U.S. Constitution prior to the war - there is evidence that was the case - then perhaps Lincoln's plan after the House Divided speech was to use war to overthrow the pro-slavery U.S. Constitution. Many people are firmly convinced Lincoln "fought to free the slaves."
But to levy war against the states Lincoln would need a pretext. He possibly found that when he used the navy to create the Gulf of Tonkin Incident.
I meant to say the Fort Sumter Incident.
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