Can someone explain to me why Churchill goes to war when the Nazis invade Poland but acquiesces to the Stalinist takeover of Poland in 1945? Is the explanation related to Churchill’s being defeated as prime minister in 1945? Socialists made their biggest gains in England against Churchill that year.
Churchill was not PM when GB went to war to honor their pact with Poland.
At the conferences for conclusion the US was influenced by Communists like Hiss and the Brits had much less influence.
In 1945 Churchill/Atlee did not have a vote. Britain was broke and in the process of turning free her colonies. FDR made the decision to hold Patten west of Berlin, thus allowing the Soviets their fill of rape and pillage.
Roosevelt absolutely did not want to fight another war. Truman inherited this position and didn’t have the nerve or weight within the Democratic party to do anything other.
FDR gave us the post-war world. Unless you were in Eastern Europe, in the long run it worked out.
Churchill was undercut by FDR in the Tehran and Yalta talks. FDR thought he could charm Stalin, and Stalin played the ailing FDR like a fiddle. There is a really good book by Lynn Olson and Stanley Cloud on the contributions of the Polish Squadrons fighting under RAF command in the Battle of Britain called “Question of Honor, Kosciusko Squadron.” It gets into to the betrayal of the Poles, largely orchestrated by FDR.
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.